• ignirtoq
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    38 months ago

    How would you scientifically measure a difference between those two definitions?

    • @Cenotaph@mander.xyz
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      558 months ago

      I mean, say this doctor has a 100% success rate but another doctor has 0%. Those two doctors collectively have a 50% success rate but it you have far better odds with the first doctor than the second

      • SK
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        48 months ago

        @Cenotaph Nope, say the first doctor did 100 successful cases, the other did 2 successful and 2 failed, then the collective would be (100+2)*100/104 = 98.07%

        So the number of cases would matter.

        • @Cenotaph@mander.xyz
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          238 months ago

          Of course. My point was only that there is definitely a difference between an individual doctor’s success rate and the overall success rate of a procedure across all doctors, responding to the commment I replied to.

        • @RogueBanana@lemmy.zip
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          8 months ago

          98.07 for the surgery in general but not if you have decided to go to the first doctor. Then the 50% chance of the second doctor doesn’t not come into the equation, assuming surgery is done by the first doctor who is independent of second doctor. Hope that makes more sense.